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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 891

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this CoS mapping are true? (Choose two)

 

 

A.

It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS 2.

B.

It maps the first queue and first threshold to CoS 2 and CoS 3.

C.

It maps CoS values to the transmit queue threshold.

D.

It maps the second threshold to CoS and CoS 3.

E.

It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS 3.

 

Correct Answer: CD

 

 

QUESTION 892

What is used to acknowledge the receipt of LSPs on a point-to-point network in IS-IS?

 

A.

hello

B.

CSNP

C.

PSNP

D.

IIH

E.

CSH

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 893

Which function does PHP perform?

 

A.

popping the top label one hop before the egress LSR

B.

popping the top label at the egress LSR

C.

popping the bottom label one hop before the egress LSR

D.

popping the bottom label at the egress LSR

E.

popping the two topmost labels one hop before the egress LSR

F.

popping the two bottommost labels one hop before the egress LSR

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

 

QUESTION 894

Which two statements about BFD operation are true? (Choose two)

 

A.

It can detect and bypass failed peers.

B.

It supports asynchronous mode.

C.

It detects failure in the forwarding path between routers over a long duration.

D.

It supports fast peer failure detection independently of the routing protocol.

E.

It provides a high-overhead, shot-duration method of detecting path failures.

 

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 895

Which BGP attribute is used to influence inbound traffic?

 

A.

weight

B.

origin

C.

multi-exit discriminator

D.

local preference

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 896

DRAG DROP

Drag each statement about IPv6 tunneling on the left to the matching IPv6 tunneling on the right.

 

 

Correct Answer:

 

 

QUESTION 897

Which statement about Type-4 LSA in OSPFv2 is true?

 

A.

It is present only in the backbone area.

B.

It is generated by each ABR and forwarded in non-stub areas.

C.

It is forwarded in NSSA areas.

D.

It is generated by the ASBR and forwarded throughout the whole OSPF domain.

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 898

Refer to the exhibit. The OSPF adjacency
between two routers cannot be established. What is the root cause of the problem?

 

 

A.

Both routers are designated routers.

B.

different area ID

C.

mismatched OSPF network types

D.

authentication error

E.

area type mismatch

 

Correct Answer: E

 

 

QUESTION 899

Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

It can be based on the source router ID.

B.

It can be based on the external route tag.

C.

It affects LSA flooding.

D.

It can be based on the as-path.

E.

It can be based on distance.

&n
bsp;

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 900

Which three statements are true about the spanning-tree loop guard feature? (Choose three.)

 

A.

Loop guard affects UplinkFast operation.

B.

Loop guard can be enabled on PortFast ports.

C.

Loop guard operation is not affected by the spanning-tree timers.

D.

Loop guard must be enabled on point-to-point link only.

E.

Loop guard cannot be enabled on a switch that also has root guard enabled.

F.

Loop guard can detect a unidirectional link.

 

Correct Answer: CDE

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 881

What is the function of NSF?

 

A.

forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors

B.

forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding

C.

provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode

D.

provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 882

Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco Express Forwarding?

 

A.

FlexVPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

GETVPN

D.

Cisco Easy VPN

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 883

What are the three modes of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?

 

A.

strict mode, loose mode, and VRF mode

B.

strict mode, loose mode, and broadcast mode

C.

strict mode, broadcast mode, and VRF mode

D.

broadcast mode, loose mode, and VRF mode

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 884

Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)

 

A.

simplified Layer 3 network virtualization

B.

improved shared services support

C.

enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability

D.

reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking

E.

increased network performance and throughput

F.

decreased BGP neighbor configurations

 

Correct Answer: ABC

 

 

QUESTION 885

The OSPF database of a router shows LSA types 1, 2, 3 and 7 only. Which type of area is this router connected to?

 

A.

backbone area

B.

totally stubby area

C.

stub area

D.

not-so-stubby area

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 886

Which two statements about the function of PIM designated router a
re true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

It registers directly connected source to the PIM rendezvous point.

B.

It sends PIM asserts on the interface of the outgoing interface list.

C.

It sends PIM Join/Prune messages for directly connected receivers.

D.

It forwards multicast traffic from the source into the PIM network.

E.

It sends IGMP queries.

 

Correct Answer: AC

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 887

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the SNMP element on the left to the corresponding definition on the right.

 

 

Correct Answer:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 888

DRAG DROP

Drag and Drop Cisco PFR adjacency types.

 

 

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 889

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop Layer 2 QoS Commands on the left to the corresponding functions on the right.

 

 

Correct Answer:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 890

Which two factors can reduce NBAR2 performance? (Choose two)

 

A.

queuing

B.

multiple NBAR2-enabled interfaces

C.

slow link speeds

D.

stateful protocol matches

E.

short-duration flows

 

Correct Answer: DE

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[Free] 2017(July) itexamfox Braindumps Cisco 400-101 Latest Dumps 871-880

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 871

Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?

 

A.

when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP

B.

when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue

C.

when WRED is enabled

D.

when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 872

An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:

 

mac address C601.420F.0007

subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64

 

A.

2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7

B.

2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7

C.

2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7

D.

2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 873

A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?

 

A.

Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.

B.

Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.

C.

Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.

D.

All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.

 

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 874

A company has just opened two remote branch offices that need to be connected to the corporate network. Which interface configuration output can be applied to the corporate router to allow communication to the remote sites?

 

A.

interface Tunnel0

bandwidth 1536

ip address 209.165.200.230 255.255.255.224

tunnel source Serial0/0

tunnel mode gre multipoint

B.

interface fa0/0

bandwidth 1536

ip address 209.165.200.230 255.255.255.224

tunnel mode gre multipoint

C.

interface Tunnel0

bandwidth 1536

ip address 209.165.200.231 255.255.255.224

tunnel source 209.165.201.1

tunnel-mode dynamic

D.

interface fa 0/0

bandwidth 1536

ip address 209.165.200.231 255.255.255.224

tunnel source 192.168.161.2

tunnel destination 209.165.201.1

tunnel-mode dynamic

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 875

Which three characteristics are shared by subinterfaces and associated EVNs? (Choose three.)

 

A.

IP address

B.

routing table

C.

forwarding table

D.

access control lists

E.

NetFlow configuration

 

Correct Answer: ABC

 

 

QUESTION 876

A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?

 

A.

No configuration must be added.

B.

stack ID

C.

IP address

D.

VLAN information

E.

VTP information

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 877

Refer to the exhibit. Switch DSW1 should share the same MST region with switch DSW2. Which statement is true?

 

 

A.

Configure DSW1 with the same version number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping as shown on DSW2.

B.

Configure DSW1 with the same region name, number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping as shown on DSW2.

C.

DSW2 uses the VTP server mode to automatically propagate the MST configuration to DSW1.

D.

DSW1 is in VTP client mode with a lower configuration revision number, therefore, it automatically inherits MST configuration from DSW2.

E.

DSW1 automatically inherits MST configuration from DSW2 because they have the same domain name.

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 878

Refer to the exhibit. Which option is the most likely explanation of the duplicate address message logged?

 

 

A.

HSRP misconfiguration

B.

a PC with IP of 10.10.1.1

C.

spanning-tree-loop

D.

a hardware problem

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 879

An access switch at a remote location is connected to the spanning-tree root with redundant uplinks. A network engineer notices that there are issues with the physical cabling of the current root port. The engineer decides to force the secondary link to be the desired forwarding root port. Which action accomplishes this task?

 

A.

Adjust the secondary link to have a lower priority than the primary link.

B.

Change the link type to point-to-point.

C.

Apply a BPDU filter on the primary interface of the remote switches.

D.

Enable Rapid Spanning Tree to converge using the secondary link.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 880

Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?

 

A.

standby 1 track 100

B.

standby 1 track 100 decrement 1

C.

standby 1 track 100 decrement 5

D.

standby 1 track 100 decrement 20

 

Correct Answer: A

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[Free] 2017(July) itexamfox Braindumps Cisco 400-101 Latest Dumps 861-870

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 861

Which two methods can you use to limit the range for EIGRP queries? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.1 outbound from select EIGRP neighbor and permit everything else.

B.

Configure route tagging for all EIGRP routes.

C.

Summarize routes at the boundary routers of the EIGRP domain.

D.

Configure unicast EIGRP on all routers in the EIGRP domain.

E.

Configure stub routers in the EIGRP domain.

F.

Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.10 outbound from select EIGRP neighbors and permit everything else.

 

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 862

Which two best practices does Cisco recommend to migrate a network from PVST+ to MST? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Start the migration at the edge nodes and work toward the root bridge.

B.

Before starting the transition, configure one of the edge nodes with a lower priority so that it becomes the root bridge after the transition.

C.

Before starting the transition, ensure that at least two nodes act as the root bridge for all VLANs in the network.

D.

Start the migration at the root bridge and work toward the edge nodes.

E.

Before starting the transition, configure one of the edge nodes with a higher priority so that it becomes the root bridge after the transition.

F.

Before starting the transition, ensure that one node is the root bridge for all VLANs in the network.

 

Correct Answer: AF

 

 

QUESTION 863

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this egress queue are true? (Choose two.)

 

 

A.

The queue 3 buffer is allocated 20 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 400 percent of memory.

B.

The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 25 percent, and it is guaranteed 100 percent of memory.

C.

The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 150 percent of memory.

D.

The queue 2 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 200 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.

E.

The queue 3 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.

 

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 864

Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types are advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose two.)

 

 

A.

connected

B.

external

C.

summary

D.

static

E.

redistributed

 

Correct Answer: AC

 

 

QUESTION 865

Refer to exhibit. The router is unreachable using telnet. Which option is solution?

 

 

A.

Use an extended access list instead of standard access list.

B.

The transport output telnet command must be added.

C.

The VRF configuration must be completed.

D.

The “vrf-also” keyword must be added to the access-class configuration.

 

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 866

Refer to the exhibit. The Main1 and Branch1 switches are connected directly over an MPLS pseudowire, and both run UDLD. After router B1 reloads because of a power failure, the pseudowire is restored. However, the Branch1 switch is unable to reach the Main1 switch. Which two actions can you take to restore connectivity and prevent the problem from recurring? (Choose two.)

 

 

A.

Configure a backup pseudowire between the Main1 and Branch1 switches.

B.

Enable UDLD recovery on both the Main1 and Branch1 switches.

C.

Configure a backup GRE tunnel between the Main1 and Branch1 swiitches.

D.

Enable errdisable recovery on both the Main1 and Branch1 switches.

E.

Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on both the Branch1 switch´s uplink to the B1 router and the Main1 switch´s uplink to the M1 router.

F.

Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the Branch1 switch uplink to the B1 router only.

 

Correct Answer: DF

 

 

QUESTION 867

Which measure does IS-IS use to avoid sending traffic with a wrong MTU configuration?

 

A.

IS-IS does not protect from MTU mismatch.

B.

MTU value is communicated in IS-IS Sequence Number PDUs (SNP), and IS-IS adjacency is not established if an MTU mismatch is detected.

C.

IS-IS uses path MTU discovery as specified in RFC 1063.

D.

IS-IS uses padding of hello packets to full MTU.

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) hellos are padded to the full maximum transmission unit (MTU) size. The benefit of padding IS-IS Hellos (IIHs) to the full MTU is that it allows for early detection of errors due to transmission problems with large frames or due to mismatched MTUs on adjacent interfaces.

 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/integrated-intermediate-system-tointermediate-system-is-is/47201-isis-mtu.html

 

 

QUESTION 868

Which statement about the spanning-tree portfast feature on the switch is true?

 

A.

If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states.

B.

If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port does not go through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states.

C.

If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port is shut down immediately.

D.

If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes into the spanning-tree inconsistent state.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 869

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the configuration is true?

 

 

A.

This configuration is incorrect because the dialer interface number must be the same as the dialer pool number.

B.

This configuration is missing an IP address on the dialer interface.

C.

This configuration is incorrect because the MTU must match the ppp-max-payload that is defined.

D.

This configuration represents a complete PPPoE client configuration on an Ethernet connection.

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

 

QUESTION 870

A network engineer is extending a LAN segment between two geographically separated data centers. Which enhancement to a spanning-tree design prevents unnecessary traffic from crossing the extended LAN segment?

 

A.

Modify the spanning-tree priorities to dictate the traffic flow.

B.

Create a Layer 3 transit VLAN to segment the traffic between the sites.

C.

Use VTP pruning on the trunk interfaces.

D.

Configure manual trunk pruning between the two locations.

 

Correct Answer: C

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 851

On a network using RIPng, the prefix field of a routing table entry has a value of 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0. What does this value signify?

 

A.

The next hop address is unknown.

B.

The next hop address is a site-local address.

C.

The neighboring router has IPv6 ND disabled.

D.

The next hop address must be the originator of the route advertisement.

E.

The associated route follows a default route out of the network.

 

Correct Answer: E

 

 

QUESTION 852

Which AS_PATH attribute can you use to prevent loops when implementing BGP confederations?

 

A.

AS_CONFED_SET

B.

AS_SEQUENCE

C.

AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE

D.

AS_SET

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 853

Which two statements about OSPF are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

External type 2 routes are preferred over interarea routes.

B.

Intra-area routes are preferred over interarea routes.

C.

External type 1 routes are preferred over external type 2 routes.

D.

External type 1 routes are preferred over intra-area routes.

E.

External type 2 routes are preferred over external type 1 routes.

 


Correct Answer:
BC

 

 

QUESTION 854

Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.

B.

Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.

C.

It is valid only on NBMA networks.

D.

It is valid only on point-to-point networks.

E.

Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.

F.

Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor.

 

Correct Answer: AE

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 855

Which two options are differences between TACACS+ and RADIUS using AAA? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Only TACACS+ limits the protocols that are supported.

B.

Only RADIUS combines accounting and authentication.

C.

Only TACACS+ uses TCP.

D.

Only RADIUS combines authorization and accounting.

E.

Only RADIUS encrypts the password in packets from the client to the server. But leaves the body of the message unencrypted.

 

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 856

Which three responses can a remote RADIUS server return to a client? (Choose three.)

 

A.

Reject-Challenge

B.

Access-Reject

C.

Accept-Confirmed

D.

Access-Accept

E.

Access-Challenge

F.

Reject-Access

 

Correct Answer: BDE

 

 

QUESTION 857

Which two statements about device access control are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

The AUX port is displayed as type tty in the output of the show line command.

B.

VTY lines are associated with physical interfaces on a network device.

C.

MPP restricts device-management access to interfaces that are configured under the control plane host configuration.

D.

The enable password command sets an MD5 one-way encrypted password.

E.

The console port supports hardware flow control

 

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 858

Which statement about traffic management when PIM snooping is enabled is true?

 

A.

Traffic is restricted to host ports.

B.

All multicast traffic is flooded to the designated router.

C.

Join message are flooded to all routers.

D.

Designated routers receive traffic only from groups through which a join message is received.

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 859

Which two statements about the passive-interface command are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

A RIP router listens to multicast updates from its neighbor but stops sending multicast updates on the passive interface.

B.

In OSPF, configuring passive-interface at the interface level suppresses hello packets for the interface and all sub interfaces.

C.

An EIGRP router can form neighbor relationship on the passive interface, but incoming and outgoing multicast updates are disabled on the interface.

D.

A RIP router disables all incoming and outgoing multicast updates in the passive interface.

E.

In EIGRP, the passive interface stops sending hello packets.

F.

In OSPF, the passive interface can receive incoming routing updates and update the device routing table.

 

Correct Answer: AE

 

 

QUESTION 860

Which component of MPLS architecture uses protocols such as the label distribution protocol and tag distribution protocol to exchange labels?

 

A.

control plane

B.

data plane

C.

forwarding plane

D.

routing plane

 

Correct Answer: A

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 841

Which EEM event detector is triggered by hardware installation or removal?

 

A.

Enhanced-Object-Tracking Event Detector

B.

Resource Event Detector

C.

OIR Event Detector

D.

CLI Event Detector

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 842

What are the two requirements for BGP to install a classful network into the BGP routing table?(Choose two)

 

A.

The AS contains the entire classfull network.

B.

A classful network statement with a lower administrative distance is in the routing table.

C.

Auto-summary is enabled.

D.

A classful network statement with a classful mask is in the routing table.

E.

Synchronization is enabled.

F.

Synchronization is disabled.

 

Correct Answer: CD

 

 

QUESTION 843

Independent, multiple OSPF processes are entered on the same router, and the processes have the same destination route. Which OSPF process is used?

 

A.

The route with the fewest hops is used.

B.

Both processes are used to load balance the traffic.

C.

The first route process that places a route into the routing table is used.

D.

The route with the shortest prefix is used.

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 844

Which two statements about MPLS VPNs are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

PE routers maintain customer routes in the VPN for that customer.

B.

They use the explicit-null label by default.

C.

P routers are used only for label transit.

D.

P routers maintain customer routes in the VPN for that customer.

E.

They support only one route target.

F.

Each interface on a PE router must have its own VRF.

 

Correct Answer: AC

 

 

QUESTION 845

Which three statements about IPsec VTIs are true? (Choose three.)

 

A.

IPsec sessions require static mapping to a physical interface.

B.

They can send and receive multicast traffic.

C.

They can send and receive traffic over multiple paths.

D.

They support IP routing and ACLs.

E.

They can send and receive unicast traffic.

F.

They support stateful failover.

 

Correct Answer: BDE

 

 

QUESTION 846

Which three values can you use to configure an ERSPAN destination session? (Choose three.)

 

A.

VLAN ID

B.

source IP address

C.

destination IP address

D.

ID number

E.

VRF

F.

session name

 

Correct Answer: BDE

 

 

 

QUESTION 847

In IPv6 Path MTU Discovery, which ICMP message is sent by an intermediary router that requires a smaller MTU?

 

A.

Time Exceeded, with code 1 (fragment reassembly time exceeded)

B.

Packet Too Big

C.

Destination Unreachable, with code 4 (the datagram is too big)

D.

Multicast Termination Router

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 848

Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two.)

 

A.

transport mode

B.

strict mode

C.

port mode

D.

loose mode

E.

VLAN mode

F.

dynamic mode

 

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 849

Which IPv6 tunneling mechanism requires a service provider to use one of its own native IPv6 blocks to guarantee that its IPv6 hosts will be reachable?

 

< tr style="mso-yfti-irow: 0; mso-yfti-firstrow: yes">

A.

6rd tunneling

B.

automatic 6to4 tunneling

C.

NAT-PT tunneling

D.

ISATAP tunneling

E.

manual ipv6ip tunneling

F.

automatic 4to6 tunneling

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 850

Which two discovery mechanism does LDP support? (Choose two.)

 

A.

strict

B.

extended

C.

loose

D.

targeted

E.

basic

 

Correct Answer: BE

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 831

How does MSTP provide backward compatibility with RSTP?

 

A.

It uses the hop count variable as a TTL counter.

B.

It transmits all spanning-tree information in one BPDU.

C.

It supports up to 128 MSTI messages.

D.

It encodes the MSTP-specific region information before the legacy RSTP BPDU.

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 832

Which standard feature can be exploited by an attacker to perform network reconnaissance?

 

A.

IP-directed broadcast

B.

maintenance operations ptotocol

C.

ICMP redirects

D.

source quench

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 833

How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?

 

A.

The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table.

B.

The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB.

C.

There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices.

D.

Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 834

Which statement about the bgp soft-reconfig-backup command is true?

 

A.

It requires BGP to store all inbound and outbound updates.

B.

It overrides soft reconfiguration for devices that support inbound soft reconfiguration.

C.

When the peer is unable to store updates, the updates are implemented immediately.

D.

It provides soft reconfiguration capabilities for peers that are unable to support route refresh.

E.

It provides outbound soft reconfiguration for peers.

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 835

What happens when an interface is configured as passive in OSPF?

 

A.

No OSPF neighbor ship is formed on the interface.

B.

An OSPF neighbor ship is formed with the DR, but not with the BDR.

C.

The subnet configured on the interface is not advertised to any other neighbor.

D.

OSPF hello messages are sent as unicast instead of multicast.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 836

Which protocol will accept incoming updates when the passive-interface command is configured?

 

A.

OSPF

B.

IS-IS

C.

RIP

D.

EIGRP

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 837

What are the three HDLC operating modes? (Choose three.)

 

A.

normal response

B.

asynchronous balanced

C.

synchronous response

D.

asynchronous response

E.

normal balanced

F.

synchronous balanced

 

Correct Answer: ABD

 

 

QUESTION 838

Which three statements about OSPFv3 address families are true? (Choose three.)

 

A.

Each address family requires the same instance ID.

B.

Address families can perform route redistribution into any IPv4 routing protocol.

C.

An address family can have two device processes on each interface.

D.

IPv4 address family require an IPv4 address to be configured on the interface.

E.

Each address family uses a different shortest path tree.

F.

Different address families can share the same link state database.

 

Correct Answer: BDE

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 839

Which BGP feature prevents a router from installing an iBGP learned route in its routing table until the route is validated within the IGP?

 

A.

confederation

B.

aggregation

C.

advertise-map

D.

synchronization

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 840

Which two statements about TCP are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

TCP option must be divisible by 32.

B.

It has a 16-bit window size.

C.

Its maximum data offset is fifteen 32-bit words.

D.

It has a 32-bit window size.

E.

Its maximum data offset is ten 32-bit words.

F.

It has a 32-bit checksum field.

 

Correct Answer: BC

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 821

In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the lowest drop probability?

 

A.

AF11

B.

AF13

C.

AF41

D.

AF43

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 822

Which two statements about GLBP are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Packets are forwarded by multiple routers that share one virtual IP address.

B.

The active router forwards packets received on one virtual IP and MAC address.

C.

The standby router forwards packets when the active router fails.

D.

Hosts on the network are configured with multiple gateways for load balancing.

E.

Routers in a GLBP group can share multiple virtual MAC addresses.

 

Correct Answer: AE

 

 

QUESTION 823

Which trunking configuration between two Cisco switches can cause a security risk?

 

A.

configuring different native VLANs on the switches

B.

configuring different trunk modes on the switches

C.

configuring mismatched VLANs on the trunk

D.

disabling DTP on the trunk ports

E.

configuring incorrect channel-groups on the switches

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 824

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from CE1 to CE2 is traveling through the core instead of through R1. All the PE routers have a similar configuration, and BGP peering and extended-community meshing are configured correctly. Which configuration change routes the traffic through R1?

 

 

A.

B.

C.

D.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 825

A floating static route appears in the routing table of an interface even when the interface is unusable. Which action can you take to correct the problem?

 

A.

Remove the permanent option from the static route.

B.

Correct the administrative distance.

C.

Configure the floating static route to point to another route in the routing table.

D.

Correct the DHCP-provided route on the DHCP server.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

 

QUESTION 826

Which two statements about redistribution are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

EIGRP requires the route to have a default metric defined.

B.

EIGRP and OSPF use their router IDs to prevent loops.

C.

When OSPF is redistributed into IS-IS, the default metric must be configured under the IS-IS process.

D.

When traffic is redistributed into OSPF, the subnets command is needed to redistribute classful subnets.

E.

The default seed metric for OSPF redistributed routes is 30.

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 827

Which LSA type is associated with the default route in a totally stubby area?

 

A.

interarea-prefix LSA for ABRs (Type 3)

B.

autonomous system external LSA (Type 5)

C.

router LSA (Type 1)

D.

interarea-router LSAs for ASBRs (Type 4)

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 828

Which statement about NAT64 is true?

 

A.

NAT64 provides address family translation and translates IPv4 to IPv6 and IPv6 to IPv4.

B.

NAT64 provides address family translation and can translate only IPv6 to IPv4.

C.

NAT64 should be considered as a permanent solution.

D.

NAT64 requires the use of DNS64.

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 829

Which statements are true about unicast RPF? (Choose three.)

 

A.

Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled.

B.

Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks.

C.

Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths.

D.

Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths.

E.

CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance.

F.

Unicast RPF loose mode is typically used with ISP networks.

 

Correct Answer: ACF

 

 

QUESTION 830

Which two statements about UDP and latency are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

UDP is connection oriented, so the size of a UDP stream is independent of latency.

B.

UDP is connection oriented, so latency can increase the size of a UDP stream.

C.

UDP is connectionless, so latency can increase the size of a UDP stream.

D.

If latency decreases, throughput also decreases.

E.

If latency increases, throughput also increases.

F.

Latency can cause jitter on UDP connections.

 

Correct Answer: CF

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 811

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that Cisco Discovery Protocol is supported and enabled only on switches A and C. Which information is returned when you issue the command show cdp neighbors on switch C?

 

 

A.

a limited amount of information about switch B

B.

neighbor details for switch A

C.

neighbor details for switch B

D.

neighbor details for switch C

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 812

Which two statements about ERSPAN are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

It supports jumbo frames of up to 9202 bytes.

B.

It adds a 50-byte header to copied Layer 2 Ethernet frames.

C.

It supports packet fragmentation and reassembles the packets.

D.

It adds a 4-byte header to copied Layer 2 Ethernet frames.

E.

Source sessions on an individual switch can use different origin IP addresses.

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 813

Which two statements about PBR route maps are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

They can use extended ACLs to identify traffic.

B.

They can route unicast traffic without interface-level classification.

C.

They can be applied to both ingress and egress traffic.

D.

They can classify traffic based on prefix-lists.

E.

They can set the metric and IP precedence bits.

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 814

Which three events can cause a control plane to become overwhelmed? (Choose three.)

 

A.

a worm attack

B.

processing a stream of jumbo packets

C.

a microburst

D.

a configuration error

E.

a reconvergence failure

F.

a device-generated FTP session

 

Correct Answer: ADE

 

 

QUESTION 815

Which three statements are true about unicast RPF? (Choose three.)

 

A.

Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled.

B.

Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks.

C.

Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths.

D.

Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths.

E.

CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance.

F.

Unicast RPF loose mode is typically used with ISP networks.

 

Correct Answer: ACF

 

 

QUESTION 816

What are three benefits of deploying NAT with ALG? (Choose three.)

 

A.

the use of dynamic ephemeral ports through a firewall

B.

the synchronization of translations between multiple streams of data

C.

the use of deep packet inspection

D.

the use of static ephemeral ports through a firewall

E.

the conversion of session layer addresses from the application payload to outside global addresses

F.

NAT traversal to support asymmetric data sessions

 

Correct Answer: ABC

 

 

QUESTION 817

Which two statements about a network running MPLS VPN with IS-IS IGP are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

IS-IS traffic engineering uses wide metric TLV type 135 with an up/down bit to define a leaked route.

B.

IS-IS traffic engineering uses wide metric TLV type 128 with an internal/external bit and an up/down bit to define a leaked route.

C.

IS-IS traffic engineering uses wide metric TLV type 130 with an internal/external bit and an up/down bit to define a leaked route.

D.

If the IS-IS up/down bit is set to 1, the leaked route originated in the L1 area.

E.

The MPLS VPN IS-IS core is inherently protected against IP-based attacks.

 

Correct Answer: AE

 

 

QUESTION 818

When VRF-Lite is configured without BGP support, which statement about the configuration of the route target and route distinguisher is true?

 

A.

The configuration of the route target and route distinguisher is required.

B.

The configuration of the route target and route distinguisher is not required.

C.

The configuration of the route target is required and the configuration of the route distinguisher is not required.

D.

The configuration of the route target is not required and the configuration of the route distinguisher is required.

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 819

Refer to the exh
ibit. How many LSDBs will router A have?

 

 

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

 

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 820

Which two options are requirements for Control-Plane Policing? (Choose two.)

 

A.

Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled globally.

B.

Cisco Discovery Protocol must be disabled in the control plane.

C.

A crypto policy must be installed.

D.

A loopback address must be configured for device access.

E.

A class map must be configured to identify traffic.

 

Correct Answer: AE

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 801

Which technology facilitates dynamic tunnel establishment in DMVPN?

 

A.

CEF

B.

mGRE

C.

a dynamic routing protocol

D.

NHRP

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 802< /b>

Which two statements about SNMP are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

SNMPv3 provides privacy and access control.

B.

All SNMP versions use get, getNext, and getBulk operations.

C.

SNMPv3 uses encrypted community strings.

D.

SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c use plaintext community strings.

E.

All SNMP versions support bulk retrieval and detailed error messages.

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

 

QUESTION 803

Which two statements about route summarization are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP can automatically summarize routing information at network address boundaries.

B.

EIGRP can automatically summarize external routes.

C.

The area range command can aggregate addresses on the ASBR.

D.

The summary-address command under the router process configures manual summarization on RIPv2 devices.

E.

The ip classless command enables classful protocols to select a default route to an unknown subnet on a network with other known subnets.

 

Correct Answer: AE

 

 

QUESTION 804

Which two message types allow PIM snooping to forward multicast traffic? (Choose two.)

 

A.

hello messages

B.

leave messages

C.

membership query messages

D.

bidirectional PIM DF election messages

 

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 805

Which feature of Cisco IOS XE Software allows for platform-independent code abstraction?

 

A.

its security

B.

Common Management Enabling Technology

C.

the Linux-based environment

D.

its modularity

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 806

Which statement about the VLAN database is true?

 

A.

Manually deleting the vlan.dat file can cause inconsistency in the database.

B.

Private VLAN information is stored in the database.

C.

VLAN configurations 1 through 4096 are stored in the vlan.dat file.

D.

The VLAN database is used only if the VTP domain name in the VLAN database matches the VTP domain name in the startup-config file.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 807

In an STP domain, which two statements are true for a nonroot switch, when it receives a configuration BPDU from the root bridge with the TC bit set? (Choose two.)

 

A.

It sets the MAC table aging time to max_age time.

B.

It sets the MAC table aging time to forward_delay time.

C.

It recalculates the STP topology upon receiving topology change notification from the root switch.

D.

It does not recalculate the STP topology upon receiving topology change notification from the root switch.

 

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 808

Which two statements about OSPF default route injection are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

The ABR requires manual configuration to send a default route into an NSSA area.

B.

The ABR injects a default route into a Totally Stub Area.

C.

In a stub area, the ASBR generates a summary LSA with link-state ID 0.0.0.0.

D.

If the default route is missing from the routing table, the ASBR can use the default-information originate command to advertise the default into the OSPF domain.

E.

By default, OSPF normal areas will generate default routes into the routing domain if a default route exists.

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 809

Refer to the exhibit. While reviewing a log file on a router with this NTP configuration, you note that the log entries of the router display a different time than the NTP time. Which action can you take to correct the problem?

 

 

A.

Add the localtime keyword to the service timestamps log datetime statement.

B.

Add the msec keyword to the service timestamps log datetime statement.

C.

Add the statement ntp broadcast to the NTP configuration of the neighboring router.

D.

Configure the router to be the NTP master.

E.

Remove the datetime keyword from the service timestamps log datetime statement.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 810

What are the three variants of NTPv4? (Choose three.)

 

A.

client/server

B.

broadcast

C.

symmetric

D.

multicast

E.

asymmetric

F.

unicast

 

Correct Answer: ABC

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

QUESTION 791

Refer to the exhibit. Two multicast domains are configured as shown and connected with MSDP, but the two domains are unable to communicate. Which two actions can you take to correct the problem? (Choose two.)

 

 

A.

Change the peering IP address in AS 65220 to 10.0.0.20.

B.

Change the peering AS on R2 to 65210.

C.

Verify that UDP port 639 is open.

D.

Verify that TCP port 139 is open.

E.< /span>

Change the MSDP originator-id to GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 on both routers.

F.

Change the MSDP peering IP address on R2 to 172.16.1.13.

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 792

Which value is the maximum segment size if you start with an MTU of 1500 bytes and then remove the overhead of the Ethernet header, IP header, TCP header, and the MAC frame check sequence?

 

A.

1434 bytes

B.

1460 bytes

C.

1458 bytes

D.

1464 bytes

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 793

DRAG DROP

Drag each IS-IS command on the left to its effect on the right.

 

 

Correct Answer:

 

 

QUESTION 794

Which cache aggregation scheme is supported by NetFlow ToS-based router aggregation?

 

A.

prefix-port

B.

AS

C.

protocol port

D.

destination prefix

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

 

QUESTION 795

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration can you implement on PE-1 to allow CE-1 to receive delegated IPv6 prefixes?

 

 

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 796

Which two statements about DHCP snooping are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.

It is implemented on a per-VLAN basis.

B.

It filters invalid DHCP messages.

C.

The binding database logs trusted and untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses.

D.

Interfaces are trusted by default.

E.

It uses the LFIB to validate requests from untrusted hosts.

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 797

Which CoS value is mapped to DSCP 48 by default?

 

A.

6

B.

7

C.

AF21

D.

< /td>

AF44

E.

AF41

F.

46

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 798

What two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configuration? (Choose two.)

 

A.

virtual-instance-name

B.

address-family

C.

router-id

D.

subnet-mask

E.

process-id

 

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 799

Which technology can MSDP SA filters use to filter traffic?

 

A.

route maps

B.

community lists

C.

prefix lists

D.

class maps

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 800

Refer to the exhibit. Which BGP feature allows R1 to instruct R2 which prefixes it is allowed to advertise to R1?

 

 

A.

route refresh

B.

Prefix-Based Outbound Route Filtering

C.

distribute lists